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Forum » FL: General ChatArabic
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[BDU] ▩▣ CD8 Killer ▣▩ @ 27 Oct 2017 11:15:58 PMIf the claim is that humanity will progress toward extinction, languages will also begin extinction. Decreased amount of languages favors the trend toward a singular language i.e. merging languages
you talk about merging languages as if it is something that easy.. "oh look we have 10 languages left lets merge them to 1 language".. no it will not be even possible to get to a state with a single language.. and there is no proof that as time passes by the languages will merge into one and it would be retarded to consider merging languages is the only thing possible if humanity was nearly extinct..
Having a common language and having only one language are two different things..
If the claim is that robots will control us and create their own language, the robot language will be the singular language i.e. merging languages.
smh i though somebody is gonna say that.. And who said we humans will even be able to understand such language? Not sure if you heard of the AI that was shut down for creating its own language.. it was a complicated language and the AI is still not fully developed..Humans will not be able to compete with the AIs language wise.. so probably AIs will have their own language and humans will have their own languages (plural yes) -
[H~I] smoof.watermelon @ 29 Oct 2017 04:47:46 AMI don't think anyone is saying that we sit down and consciously try to merge languages. But as a whole, languages die, people migrate, ideas spread, and the end product of it will be one language.
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[H~I] smoof.watermelon @ 29 Oct 2017 04:49:32 AM[~?~] ⭐⚡~Skyblue~⭐⚡
4,211 posts
27 Oct 2017
10:55:43 PM but they iz driving the economy of the world at the moment!
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China is the vehicle...that's a better analogy. -
John 3:16 @ 22 Nov 2017 04:24:42 AM[H~I] ҉ ҉s҉m҉o҉o҉f҉.✍
2,632 posts
14 Oct 2017
06:09:44 PM
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Second, the only thing I wanted to learn was when Chaldean became the mother language to Arabic.
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the question you should be asking is when Arabic became the language it is and how it become to be
but hey ask stupid questions and get stupid answers -
[H~I] smoof.watermelon @ 22 Nov 2017 05:01:54 AMOk so when did Arabic become the language it is. and how did it come to be?
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John 3:16 @ 24 Nov 2017 08:11:52 AMhttps://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chaldea
I can't give you all the information because you still need to use your brains mate
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John 3:16 @ 24 Nov 2017 09:06:54 AMhttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chaldean_Neo-Aramaic
Chaldean Neo-Aramaic + Assyrian Neo-Aramaic + Syriac (northwestern Iran or Upper Mesopotamian)
Imperial Aramaic was adopted as the second language of the Neo-Assyrian Empire by Tiglath-Pileser III in the 8th century BCE
literary Syriac and colloquial Neo-Assyrian Eastern Aramaic. The closely related dialects are often collectively called Soureth, or Syriac in Iraqi Arabic....
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Assyrian_Neo-Aramaic
Assyrian Neo-Aramaic = modern Aramaic language within the Semitic branch (Chaldean is considered to be a dialect of Assyrian)
Syriac was the lingua franca of the Middle East until 900 AD, when it was superseded by Arabic.
The Syriac script is a writing system primarily used to write the Syriac language from the 1st century AD. It is one of the Semitic abjads directly descending from the Aramaic alphabet and shares similarities with the Phoenician, Hebrew, Arabic...
When Arabic gradually began to be the dominant spoken language in the Fertile Crescent after the 7th century AD, texts were often written in Arabic with the Syriac script...
Answer to question.^
Additional info:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syriac_language
Emerging in 5th century BC Assyria, it was once spoken across much of the Near East as well as Asia Minor and Eastern Arabia.
Syriac had a fundamental cultural and literary influence on the development of Arabic, which largely replaced it towards the 14th century.
Revivals of literary Syriac in recent times have led to some success with the creation of newspapers in written Syriac (ܟܬܒܢܝܐ Kṯāḇānāyā), similar to the modern standard Arabic Fuṣḥā, has been used since the early decades of the 20th century...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mesopotamian_Arabic
Mesopotamian Arabic is a continuum of mutually-intelligible varieties of Arabic native to the Mesopotamian basin of Iraq as well as spanning into Syria, Iran, southeastern Turkey, and spoken in Iraqi diaspora communities.
Aramaic was the lingua franca in Mesopotamia from the early 1st millennium BCE until the late 1st millennium CE, and as may be expected, Iraqi Arabic shows signs of an Aramaic substrate. Due to Iraq's inherent multiculturalism as well as history, Iraqi Arabic*** in turn bears extensive borrowings in its lexicon from Aramaic, Akkadian...
Join the dots...
TLDR
This is Wiki only, there is much more extensive info elsewhere, so do your own googling.
PS: All 'true' Arabs know their language descends from 'their great father' Abraham who was from Chaldea, who also spoke and taught it to all his family -
[BDU] нєιѕєивєяg @ 24 Nov 2017 12:07:02 PMI don't think so we will head towards a common language in future as more and more translation gadgets are coming in market. They will eventually remove the language barrier. And everyone will talk in their own languages while gadgets will do the translation work for us.
So I guess we are heading towards the opposite of a common language in future. -
[BDU] нєιѕєивєяg @ 24 Nov 2017 12:14:02 PMLanguages won't get extinct atleast the main ones but people will surely become ignorant of other languages as there won't be any need to learn other languages due to translation devices.
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John 3:16 @ 24 Nov 2017 12:37:53 PMHey Smoof you are a student right?
If internet is too difficult for you then maybe go old-school and find an encyclopedia
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[H~I] smoof.watermelon @ 25 Nov 2017 02:43:18 AMYou are arguing that Chaldean is the mother language of Arabic, but the excerpts you posted are referring to Semitic, Syriac, and Aramaic languages. I can accept that Semitic, Syriac, and Aramaic preceded Arabic; I found that out from Google
. But to state that because Chaldean Neo-Aramaic, as a dialect of Assyrian Neo-Aramaic, is the mother language to Arabic because SYRIAC had an influence on Arabic is either poor comprehension or some serious fudging of facts. Syriac is neither Chaldean Neo-Aramaic nor is it Assyrian Neo-Aramaic.
Look up the timeline of Semitic languages. Syriac is a derivative of East Semitic. Arabic...FYI the mother language of modern Arabic is Classical Arabic (the language of the Q'uran) which itself is a DIRECT derivative of CENTRAL Semitic. Neo-Aramaic, "neo" meaning new, is a derivative of NORTHWEST Semitic. And Northwest Semitic is a derivative of Central Semitic. If Central Semitic directly precedes Classical Arabic which directly precedes Modern Arabic, how does Chaldean Neo-Aramaic precede Arabic when it is the derivative of a derivative of a derivative of the language that preceded Arabic?
Think it through. It makes no sense.
Finally, Chaldean is not a language, it was never a language. It is a group of people. Their language at one point was Chaldean Neo-Aramaic. Note that "Chaldean" is used as an adjective signify that it is the Chaldean form of a new form of Aramaic.
PS: "All 'true' Arabs know their language descends from 'their great father' Abraham who was from Chaldea, who also spoke and taught it to all his family"
However, it must be pointed out that no evidence has been discovered indicating that the Chaldeans existed in Mesopotamia (or anywhere else in historical record) at the time Abraham (circa 1800–1700 BC) lived, the evidence instead shows the Chaldeans as arriving some eight or nine hundred years later.[11]. Thus the Biblical text in relation to Abraham and Ur of the Chaldees is in actuality a retrospective use of the term, used simply because at the time these Talmudic/Biblical texts were written down in the 6th century BC in Babylon, the Chaldean dynasty was then in power in Babylonia. The traditional identification with a site in Assyria (a nation in Upper Mesopotamia predating Chaldea by well over thirteen hundred years, and never recorded in historical annals as ever having been inhabited by the much later arriving Chaldeans) would then imply the much later sense of "Babylonia".
LMAO. From your own fucking source. Chaldeans didn't even live in the area when Abraham was alive. How the fuck does he speak their language 900 years before it even existed. Regurgitate some more factoids...please.
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[H~I] smoof.watermelon @ 25 Nov 2017 02:50:31 AMLong story short:
Arabic is a Semitic language? Yes.
Aramaic influenced Arabic? Yes.
Syriac influnced Arabic? Yes.
Chaldean Neo-Aramaic influenced Arabic? Nope. -
[H~I] smoof.watermelon @ 25 Nov 2017 03:13:35 AMBTW both what you refer to as Chaldean Neo-Aramaic and Assyrian Neo-Aramaic refer to derivatives of Aramaic which evolved from Middle Aramaic around 1200 AD....at least 1000 years after Arabic was a spoken language.
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John 3:16 @ 25 Nov 2017 02:04:11 PMSo you googled this?
Or did you read an ecyclopedia
Just remember that the internet never lies
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[H~I] smoof.watermelon @ 25 Nov 2017 06:40:55 PMI got it from your links
